ZIAD NASR

2009-10-14T06:09:00.000-07:00

This is a picture with one of my best friend, MHakoma. He is a very nice guy, he is a dentist. He like his job and his very close friend is Osama Khlifa.

Part I Oral Surgery

2009-10-11T12:05:00.000-07:00

INTRODUCTION

2009-01-26T21:42:00.000-08:00

I made this blog to all dental students who may get benefit from it .
and feel free to ask me how can i improve this blog to even much better

goood luck for all students

مقدمة

2008-08-02T13:30:00.000-07:00

بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم والصلاة والسلام على الرسول الكريم

MIDDLE THIRD FRACTURE MCQ

2008-07-21T06:27:00.001-07:00

1) Le Fort III fracture is the same as

A. Craniofacial dysjunction

B. Guerrin's fracture

C. Pyramidal fracture

D. None of the above

……………………………………

2) Which of the following is not included in the Glassgow coma scale

A. Eye opening B. Motor response

C. Verbal response D. Pupil size

…………………………………………………

3) CSF rhinorrhea is found in :

A. Frontal bone structure

B. Zygomatico maxillary fracture

C. Naso ethmoidal fracture

D. Condylar fracture

………………………………………………

4) After fracture of middle cranial foramen there is epiphora this is due to damage of:

A. Ciliary ganglion

B. Greater palatine nerve

C. Infraorbital nerve

D. None of the above

……………………………………

5) The first step in management of head injury is :

A. Secure airway

B. I.V. mannitol

C. I.V. dexamethasone

D. Blood transfusion

………………………………………………………

6) Which of the following is not a feature of Le Fort II fracture :

A. Enophthalmos

B. Malocclusion

C. Paraesthesia

D. CSF rhinorrhea

………………………………………………………

7) Gillis approach for reduction of zygomatic fractures is done through

A. Temporal fossa

B. Intra temporal fossa

C. Infra orbital fossa

D. All of the above

……………………………………………………

8) Guerin fracture is :

A. Maxillary fracture

B. Maxillary and zygomatic fracture

C. Maxillary and nasal bone fracture

D. Nasal bone fracture only

……………………………………………………

9) A fracture of eye by a ping pong boll is

A. Blow out fracture

B. Orbital fracture

C. Blow in fracture

D. Compound fracture

……………………………………………

……….

10) CSF rhinorrhea is not found in

A. LEFORT I

B. LEFORT II

C. LEFORT III

D. ethmoidal .

…………………………………………………………

11. "Panda facies" is commonly seen after

A. Le fort I fractures

B. Le fort II fractures

C. Mandible fractures

D. None of the above

…………………………………………………………

12. Walsham's forceps are used to :

A. Remove teeth

B. Remove root

C. Clamp blood vessels

D. Reduce nasal bone fractures

…………………………………………………

13. A patient is in shock with gross comminuted fracture, immediate treatment is to give :

A. Normal saline

B. Ringer's lactate solution

C. Whole blood

D. Plasma expanders

………………………………………………………

14. Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction
A. Rowe's

B. Bristows
C. Ashs

D. Walshams

……………………………………………………

15. Paresthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures:

A. Subcondylar

B. Zygomatico maxillary

C. Coronoid process

D. Symphyseal

…………………………………………………

16. Diplopia is most common with :

A. Mandibular fracture

B. Craniofacial dysjunction

C. Nasal fractures

D. Zygomatico maxillary complex

………………………………………..

17. Suturing in facial wound injuries should be done with in:

A. 2 hours B. 6 hours
C. 4 hours D. 8 hours

……………………………………….

18.The "hanging drop appearance in the maxillary sinus radiograph indicates :

A. A nasal polyp

B. A blow out # of the orbit

C. A radiograph artifact

D. An antrolith

…………………………………………………

19. Le fort 1 fracture is characterized by:

A. Bleeding from the ear

B. Bleeding from the antrum

C. Angle class 2 skeletal relationship

D. None of the above

………………………………………..

20. Which is the immediate danger to a patient with severe facial injuries

A. Bleeding
B. Associated fracture spine

C. infection

D. respiratory obstruction.

……………………………………………………………

21. The safest initial approach to open airway of patient with maxillofacial trauma is

A. Head tilt-chin tilt

B. Jaw thrust technique

C. Head lift-neck lift

D. Heimlich procedure
……………………………………………………

22. In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficulty in opening the mouth is caused by impingement of:

A. Condyles

B. Ramus

C. Petrous temporal

D. Coronoid process

…………………………………………………

23. True open bite is caused by :

A. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla

B. Unilateral fracture of mandibular angle

C. Fracture of the coronoid process of left side of mandible

D. Fracture of mandibular symphysis

………………………………………………………….

24. All of the following statements of nasal fractures are true except:

A. Even if minor, they may be followed by bilateral ecchymosis and facial

oedema

B. They may need to be reduced for a few weeks

C. They need not be complicated by traumatic telecanthus

D. They may lead to the telescoping of the nasal complex into the frontal sinus

………………………………………………

25. Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus is

A. To support comminuted fracture of the body of zygomatic complex

B. To support and reconstitute comminuted orbital floor fracture

C. To protect mucosal covering of maxillary sinus

D. (A) and (B) are correct

……………………………………………….

26. Floating maxilla is typically found in :

A. Le Fort I or guerin fractures

B. Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures

C. Craniomandibular dysjunction

D. All of the above

………………………………………………………………..

27. In a patient of head njury which is more important to note first:

A. Pupillary light reflex

B. Pupillary size

C. Corneal reflex

D. Ability to open eye

……………………………………………………………

28. Which of the following always indicates obstruction to the airway?

A. Slow pounding pulse

B. Stertoreous breathing

C. Increase in pulse rate

D. Decrease in blood pressure

……………………………………………………

29. Moon face is seen in

A. Le Fort I

B. Le Fort II

C. Le Fort III

D. Orbital fractures

……………………………………………………………

30. Whitehead's varnish in gauze is used to arrest bleeding from

A. Gingival crest

B. Bleeding from pulp

C. Bleeding from bone

D. Bleeding from capillaries

………………………………………………………

31. In blow out fractures which of the following is seen

A. Enophthalmos

B. Exophtholmos

C. Bulbar hemorrhage

D. None

…………………………………………………

32. Gillis approach is used in

A. Open reduction of zygomatic fracture

B. Mandible

C. Closed reduction of zygomatic fracture

D. None of the above

………………………………………………….

33. Le Fort II fracture is called

A. Guerin

B. Pyramidal

C. Floating

D. Cranial disjunction

……………………………………………………

34. Diplopia after fracture results fro entrapment of

A. Inferior rectus

B. Inferior oblique

C. Lateral rectus

D. Superior oblique

………………………………………

35. In Le Fort III fracture all are seen except

A. Crack pot sound on tapping teeth

B. CSF rhinorrhea

C. Fracture at frontozygomatic suture

D. Whole face is mobile

E. None of the above

…………………………………………

36. The muscle that aids in displacement of maxillary fractures are

A. Masseter

B. Temporalis

C. Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris

D. None of the above

…………………………………………

37. Hooding of eyes is seen in which fracture :

A. Le Fort 1

B. Le Fort 2
C. Le Fort 3

D. Nasal bone

………………………………………………

MANDIBULAR FRACTURE MCQ

2008-07-18T15:41:00.001-07:00

1. Fracture of mandible all are true except

A. Fractures of the mandible are common at the angle of the mandible

B. Fractures of the mandible are effected by the muscle pull

C. Fractures of the mandible are usually characterized by sublingualhematoma

D. C.S.F. rhinorrhea is a common finding

…………………………………………………………

2. The ideal treatment for fracture of the angle of mandible is

A. Transosseous wiring

B. Intermaxillary fixation

C. Plating on the lateral side of the body of the mandible

D. Plating at the inferior border of the mandible

………………………………………………………

3. A 7-year-old boy presented with fracture of left sub condylar region with occlusion undisturbed, the treatment would be

A. Immobilization for 7 days

B. Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening

C. No immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days

D. No immobilization and active treatment

…………………………………………………………

4. A fracture mandible should be immobilized for an average of

A. 3 weeks

B. 6 weeks
C. 9 weeks

D. 12 weeks

…………………………………………………………………

5. Most common complication of condylar injuries in children

A. Pain

B. Ankylosis

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Fracture of glenoid fossa

……………………………………………………………….

6. In case of sub condylar fracture, the condyle move in

A. Anterior - lateral direction

B. Posterior - medial direction

C. Posterior- lateral direction

D. Anterior-medial direction

……………………………………………………………

7. The fracture of the tooth bearing segment of the mandible is

A. Simple B. Complex
C. Compound D. Comminuted

…………………………………………………………

8. The proximal segment of mandibular angle fracture usually displaced in which direction

A. Anterior and Superior

B. Posterior and interior

C. Interior only

D. Posterior and superior

……………………………………………

9. A displaced mandibular fracture in a child should be managed by

A. Circum mandibular wiring

B. Early mobilization

C. Intermaxillary fixation

D. Transosseous wiring

……………………………………………………

10. A fracture of the mandible in the canine region in a 6 year old child should be

Managed by

A. Cap splint fixation

B. Intermaxillary fixation

C. Risdon wiring

D. Transosseous wiring

……………………………………………………

11. The most common site of fracture of the mandible is the:

A. Body

B. Angle
C. Symphysis

D. Condyle

……………………………………………………

12. A patient with unfavourable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by:

A. Closed reduction with intermaxillary fixation

B. Closed reduction with cap splints

C. Open reduction with interosseous wiring

D. Open reduction with rigid bone fixation

………………………………………………………………

13. Bucket handle type of fractures are seen in

A. Children

B. Soldiers

C. Edentulous persons

D. Young adults

………………………………………………

14. A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced forward and medially by the

action of The following muscle:

A. Temporalis

B. External pterygoid

C. Internal pterygoid

D. Masseter

…………………………………………………

15 .Primary healing of a mandibular fracture is seen following fixation with :

A. Gunning splints

B. Compression plates

C. Trans-osseous wires

D. Clampy plates

…………………………………………

16.Eburnation is seen in

A . Malunion

B. Non union

C. Osteomyelitis

D. Osteoradionecrosis

……………………………………………

17.All are features of mandibular fracture except :

A. Malocclusion

B. Paresthesia of lower lip

C. Fractured ends are prevented from dislocation by masticatory muscles

D. Are usually compound

……………………………………………

18. Green stick fractures are most common with :

A. Older people B. Adult

C. Children D. Soldiers

………………………………………………

19. The treatment for a mandibular fracture between the incisors is :

A. Risdon wiring

B. Essig wiring

C. Cap splint with circum-mandibular wiring

D. Transosseous wiring

……………………………………………..

20. Compression osteosynthesis heals fracture mandible by :

A. Primary union with out callus formation

B. Secondary union with out callus formation

C. Compression union

D. All of the above

………………………………………………

21. Which of them is not rigid osteosynthetic fixation
A. Osteosynthesis

B. Microplating
C. Screw plating

D. Wiring

……………………………………………………

22. The most (common ) sign mandibular fracture is :
A. Malocclusion
B. Trismus

C. Deviation of the jaw on opening

D. Paraesthesia of the mental nerve

……………………………………………………

23. Direct inter dental wiring is also known as :

A. Risdon's wiring

B. Gilmer's wiring

C. Eyelet wiring

D. Col. Stouts wiring

…………………………………………………

24. An adult patient sustained a subcondylar fracture on the left side. Clinically it is seen

that then

A. Moderate intraoral bleeding

B. Trismus and bilateral crepitus

C. Deviation of the mandible to the right on protrusion

D. Inability to deviate the mandible to the right

……………………………………………

25. The weakest point of the mandible where fracture occurs is

A. Neck of the mandible

B. Angle of the mandible

C. Symphysis menti

D. Oblique ridge near mental foramen

……………………………………………

26. Clinical sign that is always positive in fracture is

A. Crepitus

B. Tenderness

C. Abnormal mobility

D. All of the above

………………………………………………

27. The extraoral X-ray view required for a fracture mandible is :

A. Submentovertex B. Posterioanterior
C. Water's D. Towne's

…………………………………………

28. Post-auricular ecchymosis is cases of fracture the base of the skull is called :
A. Battle's sign B. Tinel's sign
C. Trousseau's sign D. Nikolsky's sign.

………………………………………………

29. Direct impact on the bone will produce a :

A.Transverse fracture

B. Oblique fracture

C. Spiral fracture

D. Comminuted fracture

…………………………………………

30. A deviation of mandible to right side may suggest

A. Fracture of left condyle

B. Hyperplasia of right condyle

C. Hypoplasia of left condyle

D. Fracture of right condyle

……………………………………………….

31. If fracture of mandible occurs distal to lost tooth, the treatment of choice:

A. Closed reduction with IMF

B. Open reduction with bone plating

C. Open reduction with interosseous wiring

D. Closed reduction with cap splint

………………………………………………

32. Following bilateral mandibular fracture in the canine region, the following muscles

will tend to pull the mandible back:

A. Genioglossus and anterior belly of digastrics

B. Genioglossus and mylohyoid

C. Genioglossus and thyrohyoid

D. Genioglossus and masseter

……………………………………………

33. Treatment of choice to manage symphyseal fracture in a 8-year-old child is :

A. Intermaxillary fixation

B. Cap splint with circumferential wiring

C. Open reduction

D. No treatment indicated

………………………………………………………

34. In osteosynthesis all are used except:
A. Lag screw B. Wires
C. Clampy bone plate D. Eyelet wiring

……………………………………………………………

35. Fracture of body of mandible with full arch of teeth (undisplaced) is treated by :

A. IMF

B. Open reduction and internal fixation

C. Close reduction and internal fixation

D. External pin fixation

…………………………………………………………

36. Fracture of mandible not involving dental arch is treated by :

A. Open reduction

B. Closed reduction

C. No treatment required

D. None of the above

……………………………………………………

37. Treatment of choice of a linear non-displaced fracture of the body of the mandible, with full compliment of teeth is

A. Kirschner wire

B. Circumferential wiring

C. External pin fixation

D. Interdental fixation

……………………………………………..

38. Which of the following condition is associated with anterior open bite

A. Unilateral condylar #

B. Bilateral condylar #

C. Maxillary fractures

D. Coronoid fracture

…………………………………………………

39. When subcondylar fractures on protrusion of
mandible it deviates to
A. Same side B. Opposite side
C. Does not move D. retrudes

…………………………………………………

40. Battle's sign is.

A. Sub-conjunctival ecchymosis.

B. Sub-lingual ecchymosis.

C. Palatal ecchymosis.

D. Ecchymosis in the mastoid region.

………………………………………………

41. Risdon wiring is indicated for

A. Body fracture

B. Angle fracture

C. Symphysis fracture

D. Subcondylar fracture

……………………………………………

42. The optimum length of screw, for fixation of plate in mandible is

A. 2mm B. 3mm
C. 4mm D. 6mm

…………………………………………

43. The splint which is most commonly used identulous mandibular fracture is
A. Gunning splint B. Cap splint
C. Ribbon splint D. All of the above.

………………………………………………

44. A displaced, unfavorable fracture in the mandibular angle region is a potentially difficult fracture to treat because of

A. Injury to neurovascular bundle

B. Malocclusion secondary to injury

C. Distraction of fracture segments by muscle pull

D. Increased density of bone in this region of mandible